There
are many verses in the Bible that are used by adherents to the Doctrine of the
Trinity to prove their theological position.
Interestingly, there have been, over the years, renowned Trinitarian
theologians who have admitted problems with some of these very texts; in the
way they are used to “prove” the Trinity.
Interestingly, in having friendly
discussions on this topic, many of these proof-texts are provided to me; as if
I have never considered them. However, I
held a Trinitarian view for over 30 years.
Granted, I certainly did not know all of the tenets of the doctrine, in
its totality. I simply believed that God
was made up of three “Persons”, God, the Father, God the Son, and God the Holy
Spirit. The more I studied the Bible,
attempting not to read preconceived notions and biases into the text, the more
I found problems with the Trinity Doctrine.
I thought it may be helpful to address some of the most popular
proof-texts and offer my opinion on how I understand those texts under my
current view. As stated in my prior
installments of this series, I am open to being corrected. But, I have thoroughly studied, prayed, and
meditated on these issues for a considerable time before feeling comfortable
enough to address them in a series of papers.
There is no verse of scripture or
passage of scripture that even hints at a Trinity as the Trinity doctrine
articulates what all it encompasses.
There are only two verses in the entire Bible in which Father, Son, and
Holy Spirit are found together.
I will address one of those verses
next and the other verse at the end of this article. In between, I will be looking at proof-texts
which purport to prove the under-pinning assertion that Jesus Christ, the Son
of God, is God in the absolute sense. I
will not take up the issue of the Holy Spirit being God; distinct from the
Father, as I have already addressed this in article 4 of this series, “Is the Holy Spirit a Who?”
Let’s begin with
one of the only verses of scripture in which we find the words, “The Father”,
“the Son”, and “the Holy Spirit”.
“For there are
three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and
these three are one.” (1 John 5:7)
The King James Version of the Bible
is the only “modern” English translation of the Bible that contains the above
text.
“In the beginning
was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.” (John 1:1)
The above verse is likely the second
most used proof text of Trinitarians to prove not necessarily the Trinity, but
to prove that Jesus Christ is “very God of very God” as the doctrine
states. At the outset of addressing the
text, I want to state that I do not believe that the translation is problematic
(after reading the verse and chapter in many versions) and, therefore; I do not
attempt any shenanigans of wording as is done by the Jehovah’s Witnesses with
respect to this verse of scripture. In
looking at this verse, we will look at what Trinitarians claim to be stated in
this passage, then I will put forth my claim and the reasoning and my
justification for seeing the passage differently.
First,
Trinitarians read the first verse of John 1 and hone in on “in the beginning”
and their mind goes immediately, back to Genesis 1:1 where we also read “in the
beginning”. The only issue I would have
with using “in the beginning” in
John 1:1 is the fact that the Greek text has no definite article present in
this clause. Meaning, it should more
accurately read, “in a beginning”. I
don’t belabor this point, however. I
think for ease of reading, it isn’t a problem to have “the” in the middle of
the clause. As we will later see, I
believe that John is using “the beginning” and other original creation language
to show that John is really talking about the beginning of something else
entirely when Jesus Christ began His earthly ministry. The context and time markers given by John in
John 1 make this apparent; if we come to the text without a preconceived idea
of what the text is saying.
The
Trinitarian position is that “the Word” of verse 1 is the person of Jesus
Christ or “God, the Son”, literally.
And, since we have “in the beginning” pinpointing the time element, the
position becomes that Jesus Christ or God, the Son was both “with God” and “was God”, creating the
heavens and the earth. This
interpretation fits almost perfectly
with the Trinitarian construct of God. I
say “almost” because conspicuously
absent from this creation scene is another “Person”. Of course; Trinitarians (if pressed on this
issue) may claim that the Holy Spirit’s function in creating was not being
addressed here or some such thing. And,
of course; I would point back to their own creed to point out that their own
creed claims that “…in their entirety the three persons are…”. As I addressed in part 4 of this series, “Is the Holy Spirt a Who?”, the “Person”
of the Holy Spirit is consciously absent on many occasions where we would think
“He” would be found, such as the greetings found in each of the New Testament
epistles.
Below,
I am going to post the entire passage in question so that we can address the
context and attempt to determine what the writer, the Apostle John, had in mind
when writing this.
[KJV]“In the beginning was the Word, and the Word
was with God, and the Word was God. 2 The same was in the beginning with God. 3
All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was
made. 4 In him was life; and the life was the light of men. 5 And the light
shineth in darkness; and the darkness comprehended it not. 6 There was a man
sent from God, whose name was John. 7 The same came for a witness, to bear
witness of the Light, that all men through him might believe. 8 He was not that
Light, but was sent to bear witness of that Light. 9 That was the true Light,
which lighteth every man that cometh into the world. 10 He was in the world,
and the world was made by him, and the world knew him not. 11 He came unto his
own, and his own received him not. 12 But as many as received him, to them gave
he power to become the sons of God, even to them that believe on his name: 13
Which were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of
man, but of God. 14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we
beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of
grace and truth. 15 John bare witness of him, and cried, saying, This was he of
whom I spake, He that cometh after me is preferred before me: for he was before
me. 16 And of his fulness have all we received, and grace for grace. 17 For the
law was given by Moses, but grace and truth came by Jesus Christ. 18 No man
hath seen God at any time, the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the
Father, he hath declared him.” (John 1:1-18)
Before
delving into the depths of the text to determine the true context, let’s look
at the word, “Word” (Greek, “logos” Strong’s G3056). In the New Testament, alone, “logos” (“word”)
is translated as “word”, 218 times, “saying” 50 times, “account” 8 times,
“Word” 7 times, “thing” 5 times, and as miscellaneous other words 32
times. In the Old Testament, the word
that is translated as “word” (Hebrew, “dabar” Strong’s H1697) is translated as
“word” 807 times, “thing” 231 times, “matter” 63 times, “chronicles” 38 times, and
various other words 204 times.
When
we get to verse 3 (see above), we begin to see the personal pronoun, “him”
being used to modify, “the Word”. Now,
take a look at the same passage in the Tyndale Translation of the Bible. The Tyndale Translation was the first English
translation. Notice the pronoun used,
beginning in verse 3:
“In
the beginnynge was the worde and the worde was with God: and the worde was God.
2 The same was in the beginnynge with God. 3 All thinges were made by it and
with out it was made nothinge that was made. 4 In it was lyfe and the lyfe was
ye lyght of men 5 and the lyght shyneth in the darcknes but the darcknes
comprehended it not. 6 There was a man sent from God whose name was Iohn. 7 The
same cam as a witnes to beare witnes of the lyght that all men through him
myght beleve. 8 He was not that lyght: but to beare witnes of the lyght. 9 That
was a true lyght which lyghteth all men that come into the worlde. 10 He was in
ye worlde and the worlde was made by him: and yet the worlde knewe him not. 11
He cam amonge his (awne) and his awne receaved him not. 12 But as meny as
receaved him to them he gave power to be the sonnes of God in yt they beleved
on his name:”
Notice
how Tyndale used the pronoun “it” to modify “the worde” (v.3-4) and notice that
“worde” is not capitalized here. But,
notice what happens beginning in verse 7.
“it” is exchanged for the personal pronouns “him” and “his”. We see that similary, Tyndale did the same
thing with the word “the lyght”. He
transitioned from “it” (v.4-5) to “him” (v.7).
The King James Version did the same, yet, with “the light”; but when it
came to “the Word”, the translators used the personal pronoun “him” beginning
in verse 3. After analyzing the context,
I will explain why I believe that to get the idea of what John is talking
about, a mix of pronouns is appropriate in John 1.
Again,
our attention is brought to “in the beginning” which is mentioned twice in
verse 1, bringing to mind the creation story of Genesis 1-2. In verse 3, we read that all things were made
by it/him. This language also brings to
mind Genesis 1-2. Then, we read in
verses 4 and 5 about “light”. Verse 5
speaks specifically about this light shining in the darkness (“…darkness was upon the face of the deep…”
and “…let there be light…” Gen. 1:2-3) and the darkness not comprehending
it. But, in verse 6, John does something
very strange, if the “in the
beginning” that he has in mind is the Genesis 1 beginning. He begins to talk about John the
Baptist. By-the-way, verse 6 states that
this man (John the Baptist) was “sent from God”. But, we know that John the Baptist did not
exist prior to being conceived in his mother.
John the Baptist, we are told in verses 7-8, came to bear witness “of
that Light”. In verses 9-12, we see the
language used by John; again, bringing to mind the creation; even using
language such as “…world was made by
him…”. But, also in verse 10, we
read “…and the world knew him not…”
. Did this making of the world and the
world not knowing Him occur in Genesis?
How about the very next verse where we read that “…He came unto His own, and his own received him not…”? When did this coming unto His own and
them not receiving Him happen? Was it in
Genesis 1? In verse 12 we read, “…that as many received Him, to them gave,
He power to become the sons of God…”. Did
those to whom Jesus Christ preached and perform miracles and whom believed on
Him and to whom He gave the power to be the sons of God, live in the period of
Genesis? So, what is the context of what
John is talking about in John 1?
Maybe
it will be even more clear if we look at how not only John, but other New
Testament writers used “the beginning” and see if they were speaking of “the
beginning” of Genesis 1 or the beginning of something else entirely.
“The
beginning of the gospel of Jesus Christ, the Son of God” (Mark 1:1)
Notice
that the first verse of Mark’s gospel tells us what “beginning” he has in
mind. The beginning of the gospel of
Jesus Christ.
“Even
as they delivered them unto us, which from the beginning were eyewitnesses, and
ministers of the word” (Luke 1:2)
Above,
Luke is talking about a group who were eyewitnesses and ministers; of what? The gospel and ministry of Jesus Christ.
“That
which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our
eyes, which we have looked upon, and our hands have handled, of the Word of
life” (1 John 1:1)
In
the passage above, John uses very similar language to that in John 1; and is
speaking again; not of “the beginning” of creation, but of the beginning of the
gospel.
“For
this is the message that ye heard from the beginning, that we should love one
another” (1 John 3:11)
Was
the message that we love one another heard from the beginning of creation? Not really.
The message that we love one another was heard from the beginning of the
gospel of Jesus Christ.
As
you can see, the New Testament writers (especially John) had a beginning of
something else entirely in mind. But,
why would he use that language that obviously points us to the creation
narrative of Genesis 1?
The
answer is really simple when we understand what Jesus said that He came to do
and what John says about the ministry of Jesus Christ in heralding the
gospel. Jesus Christ didn’t speak of
Himself, and did not speak His own words, and did nothing apart from the
Father. He said that man shall not live
by bread alone but every word that proceeds from the mouth of God.
Many
Christians often refer to The Bible as “The Word of God”. While the underlying scriptures are (I
believe) certainly inspired by God, The Bible contains the Words of God, the
words of good kings, bad kings, good men, bad men, and even the serpent. The point is that the Word of God is the Word
of God. We have the Word of God spoken
by the prophets, throughout the Old Testament.
But, with the coming of Jesus Christ into His ministry, we have
something very new. We have God speaking
through a Son. The writer of the book of
Hebrews, notes that this was something new.
See below:
“Whereas,
in many parts and in many ways of old, God spake unto the fathers, in the
prophets, At the end of these days, He hath spoken unto us in his Son, whom he
hath appointed heir of all things, through whom also he hath made the ages” (Heb.
1:1-2)
Further,
Christ so perfectly represented the Father, that He could be called, The Word
of God. In article 2 of this series, “The Doctrine of the Trinity, Part 2: Divine
Agency”, I explain this in great detail.
This is how John could say in John 1:14 that the Word was “made flesh and dwelt among us”. I don’t think that this means that God’s
Spoken Word literally and physically became a man. It is a figure of speech. God’s Word is still that; His Word, sayings,
thoughts, etc. Jesus Christ says as much
in John 14:10, where He states, “… the
words that I speak unto you I speak not of myself: but the Father that dwelleth
in me…”. Jesus Christ was the
ultimate Messenger of God, the Father. He
delivered God’s Plan/Word/Ideas/Thoughts/Purpose/Works to us. He did so, so perfectly that He could
figuratively be called The Word.
This is a common figure
of speech. It is personification. There is an Old Testament precedent for this
interpretation as well. Consider the
following passage:
[Rotherham]“At the outset of the ages, had I been
established, in advance of the antiquities of the earth; When there was no
resounding deep, I had been brought forth, when there were no fountains,
abounding with water; Ere yet the mountains had been settled, before the hills,
had I been brought forth; Or ever he had made the land and the wastes, or the
top of the dry parts of the world: When he prepared the heavens, there, was
I! When he decreed a valut upon the face
of the resounding deep” (Proverbs 8:23-27)
I have used this passage
over the years to illustrate the point.
In the past, I have read this passage and asked many Christians, “Who is
speaking here?”. Almost all answer,
“Jesus Christ, of course.”. Well, read
below, the opening of this passage:
[Rotherham]“Doth not, Wisdom, cry aloud? And,
understanding, send forth her voice? At the top of the high places above the
way, at the place where paths meet, she taketh her stand: Beside the gates, at
the entrance of the city, at the going in of the openings, she shouteth: Unto
you, O men, I call, and, my voice, is unto the sons of men; Understand, ye
simple ones, shrewdness, and, ye dullards understand sense; Hear, for, princely
things will I speak, and the opening of my lips shall be of equity” (Proverbs
8:1-6)
That’s right. The “she” who is speaking here, is
Wisdom. More accurately, Wisdom, being
personified, is speaking here through the words of Solomon. But, we have the exact same principle here
that we have in John 1, with respect to the word “The Word”. We have personification. But, beyond that, in John 1, we are being told
that One Who perfectly spoke for God, could be identified as His Word.
Just as with Wisdom,
God’s Word was with Him in the beginning.
God spoke and light and life came into being. That is creation language and is also found
in Genesis 1. But, His Word of the
gospel which was being proclaimed by His Son was also light and life,
correct? This is the new beginning that
began with the ministry of Jesus Christ.
That is why we can see that John utilized creation language in speaking
of Christ’s ministry and indeed flips back and forth when speaking of “the
Word” to make us realize that the Word of God is the light and life of the
world. As the writer of Hebrews pointed
out, now, “…He hath spoken to us by His
Son…”. God sent us His Son to
deliver the gospel; the Good News, as His appointed Messenger.
“I and the Father are one.” (John
10:30)
The above verse is a very
common proof-text for the Trinity Doctrine.
It is also commonly used by Modalists (who are quick to point out that
they do not believe in a Trinity; almost as quickly as Trinitarians will point
out that they do not believe in Modalism/Oneness). Well, we have Jesus Christ saying that He and
the Father are “One”. Case closed. Not so fast.
This is a very simple verse and its actual meaning can be easily
ascertained and understood if we simply keep reading. In John 17, we have Jesus Christ praying to
His God and Father. And one of the things He does, which is of great
significance, is to pray for His disciples.
He knew that He would soon, be going to the cross and that they would be
coming under great trials and persecutions.
In this prayer, we come to verses 21-22, in which we read,
“That they all may be one; as thou,
Father, art in me, and I in thee, that they also may be one in us: that the
world may believe that thou hast sent me.
And the glory which thou gavest me I have given them; that they may be
one, even as we are one” (John 17:21-22)
If we apply the same
meaning to the above words of Christ, we have added about a dozen more (at
least) to this Trinity. It becomes obvious, by allowing scripture
to interpret scripture, that Christ and His Father are not one in essence and
being; but one in purpose; just as He prayed that His disciples would be.
“But unto the Son he saith, Thy
throne O God, is for ever and ever: a scepter of righteousness is the scepter
of thy kingdom” (Heb. 1:8)
Another favorite is the
above verse from Hebrews. It certainly
sounds like it proves the Trinity. At
this point, I hope that you have read all the articles in this series in order,
as article one addresses the title, “god” and shows that it is a very elastic
term and is used not only of God, Almighty, but also of the Messiah/Christ,
angels, and humans. The above verse is
actually a quote from King David. Let’s
look:
“My heart is inditing a good matter:
I speak of the things which I have made touching the king: my tongue is the pen
of a ready writer. Thou art fairer than
the children of men: grace is poured into thy lips: therefore God hath blessed
thee for ever. Gird thy sword upon they thigh, O most mighty,
with thy glory and thy majesty. And in
thy majesty ride prosperously because of truth and meekness and righteousness;
and thy right hand shall teach thee terrible things. Thine arrows are sharp in the heart of the
king’s enemies; whereby the people fall under thee. Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: the
ceptre of thy kingdom is a right scepter.
Thou lovest righteousness, and hatest wickedness: therefore God, thy
God, hath anointed thee with the oil of gladness above thy fellows. All thy garments smell of myrrh, and aloes,
and cassia, out of the ivory palaces, whereby they have made thee glad. Kings’ daughters were among thy honorable
women: upon thy right hand did stand the queen in gold of Ophir. Hearken, O daughter, and consider, and
incline thine ear; forget also thine own people, and thy father’s house; So
shall the king greatly desire thy beauty: for he is thy Lord; and worship thou
him. And the daughter of Tyre shall be
there with a gift; even the rich among the people shall intreat thy favour. The king’s daughter is all glorious within:
her clothing is of wrought gold. She
shall be brought unt the king in raiment of needlework: the virgins her
companions that follow her shall brought unto thee. With gladness and rejoicing
shall they be brought: they shall enter into the king’s palace. Instead of thy fathers shall be thy children,
whom thou mayest make princes in all the earth.
I will make thy name remembered in all generations: therefore shall the
people praise thee for ever and ever.” (Psalm 45)
“But unto the Son he saith, Thy
throne, O God, is for ever and ever: a sceptre of righteousness is the sceptre
of thy kingdom.” (Heb. 1:8)
This Psalm was written by
King David about his son, Solomon. Can
some of the verses in Psalm 45 also be applied of David’s Greater Son, Christ
Jesus? Absolutely, but you can also see
that some of the verses, cannot be so applied.
The writer of Hebrews shows (by using verse 6 in Hebrews 1) that at
least verse 8 of Hebrews 1, can be applied to Christ Jesus. Again, I would point out that the title, “god”
is very elastic in the Bible. Am I alone
in the interpretation that Psalm 45 was written about King Solomon? John Calvin wrote that it was originally
written about Solomon, by David. But
even with this admission, and that the original words written in the psalm was
written by David, about Solomon; Calvin states that somehow “thy throne o God is for ever and ever” only applies to Christ
Jesus.[1] Calvin’s reasoning appears to be due to the
following: First, Calvin will not allow
the facts to get in the way of his theology. Secondly, his application of the
title, “god”, was far more restricted than that of the Hebrew writers’
understanding. Finally, Calvin believed
that the Hebrew and Greek phrase translated as “for ever and ever” indicated
“eternity” when the phrase actually indicates an age/eon of time (as
demonstrated below in the Rotherham translation of the verse):
“Thy throne, O God, is to times
age-abiding and beyond, A sceptre of equity, is the sceptre of thy kingdom.”
(Psalm 45:6)
“but, as to the Son,—Thy throne, O
God, is unto times age-abiding, and—A sceptre of equity, is the sceptre of his
kingdom,” (Hebrews 1:8)
So, if we are going to
use Hebrews 1:8 as a proof text and state that because of that language, we
must conclude that Jesus Christ is God in the absolute sense, then we must do
the same with Solomon.
“Jesus said unto them, Verily,
verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am.” (John 8:58)
This verse, which is in a
larger dialogue between Jesus Christ and the Pharisees, is a Trinitarian proof
text to the extent that it is used to “prove” that Christ Jesus existed prior
to be conceived in Mary; which must be proven if the Trinitarian is to prove
“Co-Eternality”. This is a difficult
verse. It was for me. This verse was one that I thought to be very
simple in its isolation and obviously proved that Christ Jesus was in some
form, around prior to Abraham. Let’s
examine the broader context.
In
this passage, we have a very well-known event and confrontation between the
Lord and the scribes and Pharisees.
Jesus Christ was teaching the people and had garnered a crowd, as usual,
and this upset the Pharisees who believed that the people should be looking to them and esteeming them when it came to the teaching of the law and the prophets (the
Old Testament). They saw Jesus Christ as
a great threat to their position and just as is the case today with people who
have power; they wanted to hold onto that power and remove any threats to their
position. So, in hopes of entrapping the
Lord into a tough situation (to hopefully make Him look bad in front of the
crowds), they brought to Him a woman “caught” in adultery (have you ever
wondered how it was that they “caught” her??).
If you do not know what happens with the woman whom the Pharisees wanted
to be stoned, please read John 8 in its entirety.
The
Lord, as usual, made the Pharisees and scribes look bad in front of the people
after they have tried to entrap Him. Then
begins another dialogue between them. Before
taking up the question of John 8:58 which we have before us, I do want to point
out a couple of verses in this passage and something you may find interesting;
given what we have already learned about “the beginning” in John 1.
Let’s look at the following specifically, leading to
the verse in question before us.
“It
is also written in your law, that the testimony of two men is true. 18
I am one that bear witness of myself, and the Father that sent me beareth
witness of me. 19 Then said they unto him, Where is
thy Father? Jesus answered, Ye neither know me, nor my Father: if ye had known
me, ye should have known my Father also. 20
These words spake Jesus in the treasury, as he taught in the temple: and no man
laid hands on him; for his hour was not yet come. 21
Then said Jesus again unto them, I go my way, and ye shall seek me, and shall
die in your sins: whither I go, ye cannot come. 22
Then said the Jews, Will he kill himself? because he saith, Whither I go, ye
cannot come. 23 And he said unto them, Ye are from
beneath; I am from above: ye are of this world; I am not of this world. 24
I said therefore unto you, that ye shall die in your sins: for if ye believe
not that I am he, ye shall die in your sins. 25
Then said they unto him, Who art thou? And Jesus saith unto them, Even the same
that I said unto you from the beginning. 26
I have many things to say and to judge of you: but he that sent me is true; and
I speak to the world those things which I have heard of him. 27
They understood not that he spake to them of the Father.” (John 8:17-27)
Here,
Jesus Christ is speaking to the Pharisees and explaining cryptically at first,
that He and His Father bear witness to who He (Jesus) is (the Son of God). They ask Him where His Father is and Jesus
answers that they do not know His Father, nor Him (Jesus). Finally, in verse 25, they ask Him, Who He is
and His answer is “…even the same that I said unto you from the beginning”. “Unto you”,
is addressed directly to the Jews and Pharisees. Which beginning? Well, we established earlier in our study of
John 1, that the beginning is the beginning of Christ’s ministry in proclaiming
the gospel given by His Father. Who did
Jesus tell them that He was, from the beginning?
Ø “I am come in my Father’s name”
(John 5:43)
Ø “The bread of life”
(John 6:35)
Ø “The bread which came down from
heaven” (John 6:41)
Ø “The light of the world”
(John 8:12)
He did not say this in
the Genesis beginning, and those Jews and Pharisees were certainly not around
in that beginning to have heard it;
had He said it.
Now, to the immediate context of John 8:58.
“Your
father Abraham rejoiced to see my day: and he saw it, and was glad. 57
Then said the Jews unto him, Thou art not yet fifty years old, and hast thou
seen Abraham? 58 Jesus said unto them, Verily,
verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am. 59
Then took they up stones to cast at him: but Jesus hid himself, and went out of
the temple, going through the midst of them, and so passed by.” (John 8:56-59)
Jesus
Christ told the Pharisees that Abraham saw “my day”. The Pharisees, being obstinate and
argumentative either twisted what Jesus said or completely misunderstood what
He said. I believe it was the former. Notice that Jesus Christ did not say that He
saw and or spoke with Abraham. Notice
that nor did Christ say that Abraham saw Him. He said that Abraham saw Christ’s day and rejoiced in it. What does that mean? Throughout the scriptures, we have reference
to the Day of the LORD and in Revelation 1:10 we read that John was in the
“Spirit on the Lord’s day”. Unlike how
most preachers use “the Lord’s day”; the scriptures are not referring to
Sunday, but rather referring to a time when the Lord’s reign is realized upon
the earth. This era we currently live in
could be called “man’s day”. Man does
his own thing and runs things as he sees fit, but thankfully, this will one day
end and we will be under “the Lord’s day”.
This is what Abraham saw. Can we
find another scripture that more specifically proves this?
“By
faith Abraham, when he was called to go out into a place which he should after
receive for an inheritance, obeyed; and he went out, not knowing whither he
went. 9 By faith he sojourned in the land of
promise, as in a strange country, dwelling in tabernacles with Isaac and Jacob,
the heirs with him of the same promise: 10
For he looked for a city which hath foundations, whose builder and maker is
God. (Heb. 11:8-10)
This
is the day that Abraham saw and looked for.
This city and its foundations, made by God; will be ruled by Jesus
Christ as Lord. So, why did Jesus Christ
not correct the Pharisees when they obviously twisted His words? Christ knew their hearts. There was no point in explaining. Also, why did Jesus say that “before Abraham was, I am”? And, why was their reaction to pick up stones
to kill Him? Trinitarians will argue
that what Jesus Christ did here, was to use the phrase of identification that
God used in identifying Himself to Moses in the burning bush, in Exodus 3. However, that is not what He said. If you were to look at the Septuagint, the
Old Testament in Greek, and compare what was said from the burning bush, “ego eimi ho hown”, with what Christ
said in John 8:58 (and 4:26), “ego eimi”, you will notice they are not the same
phrases. In the Greek, the former is, “I am” or “I am He”, and the latter is, “I
will be what I will be”. Further, if
you remember from article 2 in this series, “Divine
Agency”, Exodus 3:2 states that it was actually a messenger/angel in the
burning bush.
Some
will object and argue that the Pharisees would have only picked up stones to
kill Jesus Christ because He claimed to be God.
That is just not true. As I
mentioned earlier, the Pharisees’ position was threatened by Jesus Christ. In this scene, He had just made them look
very badly in front of the people with the woman who they “caught” in
adultery. The account does not tell us
what Jesus stooped down and wrote in the dirt; but perhaps it was the name of
one or more of the Pharisees who “caught” this woman “in the act”. He also had just publicly pointed out that
they did not know God, His Father. Also,
the Pharisees demonstrate in John 12:9-11, that they also plotted to kill
Lazarus. Lazarus didn’t claim to be God
either. Lazarus just happened to be
proof that Jesus was exactly who He claimed to be, in raising Lazarus from the
dead. So, there was plenty of motive for
the Pharisees to want to kill Jesus Christ.
Had Jesus Christ claimed to actually be God, The Father; I don’t believe
they would have even fooled with going after Jesus Christ to kill Him. Such a claim would have been seen as
lunacy.
As it
pertains to the contention that Jesus Christ, in saying that, “I am”, was His
way of saying that He was God; a major problem is created for Trinitarians. Most Trinitarians will agree that God, the
Father, was being identified as “I am becoming what I will be” but then say
that Christ Jesus was claiming the same identification. For a Trinitarian to be consistent with his
own theology, he cannot hold that position.
The Trinitarian Creed states that “The Son is not the Father”. The Athanasian Creed makes abundantly clear
that one is to believe that The Father is not the Son and the Son is not the
Father. Believing that the Son was
actually the Father, is what Modalists believe and Trinitarian theologians
believe Modalism to be a great heresy.
[KJV]“For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the
Godhead bodily.”(Col. 2:9)
[CLT] “for in Him the entire complement of the
Deity is dwelling bodily.”
The
above is another proof-text used by Trinitarians in an attempt to prove that
Jesus Christ is absolute God. However,
when you really consider what Paul is saying, it disproves their point. Again, when we see “God” in the Bible, it is
understood that God, the Father, is being referenced. Don’t be confused by the word,
“Godhead”. As is shown in the Concordant
translation provided just under the KJV translation, there is no need for this
word. It is the same Greek word that is
translated elsewhere as “Deity” or “Divine”.
We all know what those words mean, but what does “Godhead” even
mean? I have no idea. “Deity” means “God”, correct? And Trinitarians state that Jesus Christ the
“him” (in the above verse) is God, correct?
Let’s alter the wording just a bit and maybe you will see what nonsense
is created.
“For
in God dwelleth all the fullness of the God bodily.”
Does
that make any sense? It doesn’t and that
is why they play word games and use worthless, conjured up words like
“Godhead”. In Christ Jesus all the
fullness of the Deity is dwelling bodily.
What was Paul trying to tell us here?
I think it’s actually very simple and again, we must let scripture
interpret scripture. We know that God
dwells in us as believers. The
scriptures tell us as much. But, does
the Bible tell us anything about how God dwells in Christ that is maybe different than how God dwells in us?
It sure does. See the verse
below:
“For
he whom God hath sent speaketh the words of God: for God giveth not the Spirit
by measure unto him.” (John 3:34)
John
tells us here that God gives the Spirit (His Holy Spirit) to Christ Jesus
without measure; meaning that He gives Him all
of it, or the fullness of it. That is not so with everyone else. In that way, the fullness of the Deity
dwelleth bodily. It is nonsensical and
redundant to say that in God, dwells God.
It takes a theologian to say something so ridiculous and that is not
what the Bible is saying.
“Who,
being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God: 7 But
made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was
made in the likeness of men: 8 And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled
himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross. (Phil.
2:6-8)
Above,
is one of the most cherished verses of Trinitarians. Unfortunately, it isn’t loved because it
tells us that Christ Jesus made Himself a servant (just as He told His
disciples to be), but because it is believed that Paul is stating that Jesus
Christ is inherently equal with God and also that He existed in Spirit form and
that “God, the Son” decided to “empty himself” of that form and become a man
(making the baseless assumption that the form of a human is synomously a
servant or slave). Are those the things
that Paul was communicating?
The
scope of Paul’s letter to the believers in Philippi is that of service. Serving, rather than being served, was what
Jesus Christ lived out during His earthly ministry. This was what He stressed to His disciples as
they argued over which of them would have a seat at Christ’s right hand, in the
Kingdom. He replied to them, in Mark
10:39-44:
“But
Jesus said unto them, Ye know not what ye ask: can ye drink of the cup that I
drink of? and be baptized with the baptism that I am baptized with? 39 And they
said unto him, We can. And Jesus said unto them, Ye shall indeed drink of the
cup that I drink of; and with the baptism that I am baptized withal shall ye be
baptized: 40 But to sit on my right hand and on my left hand is not mine to
give; but it shall be given to them for whom it is prepared. 41 And when the
ten heard it, they began to be much displeased with James and John. 42 But
Jesus called them to him, and saith unto them, Ye know that they which are
accounted to rule over the Gentiles exercise lordship over them; and their
great ones exercise authority upon them. 43 But so shall it not be among you:
but whosoever will be great among you, shall be your minister: 44 And whosoever of you will be the chiefest,
shall be servant of all.”
Trinitarians
believe that Christ Jesus was inherently equal with God and for that reason,
because He is God, He didn’t deem
that He was robbing God; being equal with Him and being God. If that were the
case, the apostle needing to point out that God was not robbing Himself is
ridiculous. If Christ Jesus is absolute
God, He would obviously not think He was robbing God, because He would have
been robbing Himself. So, what was Paul
saying in stating that Christ Jesus has the form of God and didn’t deem it
robbery to be equal with God? Scripture
tells us and we have covered some of it already in this series and article. Christ told His disciples, “if ye have seen
me, ye have seen the Father”. He said
that He does the works of “my Father”.
He said that no man has seen God at any time, but only the Son, and that
He, Himself declares/reveals/makes known Him (God the Father). In those way, Christ Jesus is in the form of
God. Through the things He said and did,
people were shown what God “looks like”.
When it comes to being equal with God, we learn that God gave Christ
Jesus all authority in both Heaven and Earth (Matt.28:18), and made Him, Lord and Christ (Acts 2:36). God, Himself is not given authority and not
given a title, “Lord”. He inherently has
all authority and is inherently, Lord.
But, with Christ Jesus, God, The Father, gave Him all authority and the title, Lord. Since God gave
His Son the authority and title, being equal with God as to having all
authority in both heaven and earth, Christ, rightly did not view that as having
robbed God; or having taken something that did not belong to Him. He made Himself into the form of a slave/servant. When did He do this? He did that with the beginning of His
ministry, correct? Just prior to Paul
saying that Christ was in the form of God and didn’t deem it robbery to be
equal with God, Paul said, “…let this
mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus”. If we are to have that same mindset that
Christ had, are we to think that we are equal with God and that we were Deity
that emptied ourselves and took on the form of humans? To be consistent with the Trinitarian
understanding of Philippians 2:9, that is what they should take it to mean.
KJV“And without controversy great is the
mystery of godliness: God was
manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto
the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory.”(1 Tim.
3:16)
ESV
“Great indeed, we confess, is the mystery
of godliness: He was manifested in
the flesh, vindicated by the Spirit, seen by angels, proclaimed among the
nations, believed on in the world, taken up in glory.
The
above verse (in the King James Version) is one of the strongest proof texts
used. But, as you have seen demonstrated
in the ESV translation below it; perhaps it is not a proof text at all. It is a question of what the underlying Greek
manuscript says after the word, “godliness”.
According to the marginal notes of the Revised Version of the KJV, the
insertion of the word “…Theos (the Greek word for “God”) rests on no sufficient
evidence…”[2].
“He”, Jesus Christ, was manifested in the flesh. Nowhere, do the scriptures state that God
took on flesh. On the contrary, there
are many verses of scripture which would contradict such a saying.
[KJV]“Looking for that blessed hope, and the
glorious appearing of the great God and our Saviour Jesus Christ; (Titus 2:13)
[Berean
Study Bible] “awaiting the blessed hope
and the appearing of the glory
of our great God and Savior, Jesus Christ,
[NKJV]
“looking for the blessed hope and
glorious appearing of our great God and Savior Jesus Christ,”
[NLT]“while we look forward with hope to that
wonderful day when the glory of our great God and Savior, Jesus Christ, will be
revealed.
[Rotherham]“Prepared to welcome the happy hope and
forthshining of the glory of the great God and our Saviour Christ Jesus,—“
[NASB]
“looking for the blessed hope and the
appearing of the glory of our great God and Savior, Christ Jesus,”
As
demonstrated by the various examples of Bible translations supplied above, some
verses place “appearing” as being glorious and identify Jesus Christ (or Christ
Jesus, in some translations) as the God and Saviour; while other make Christ
Jesus the glory of our God and Saviour, Who is the Glory of our God and Saviour.
“I
am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending, saith the Lord, which is, and
which was, and which is to come, the Almighty.”(Rev. 1:8)
Next,
we have the title, “Alpha and Omega”, and the question of to Whom it is
applied. The great majority of
theologians will tell you that the 3 instances of this title in the Book of the
Revelation of Jesus Christ, are all applied to and spoken by Jesus Christ,
Himself. I would state that grabbing a
red letter edition of the Bible is of little help. The coloring of the text to red to indicate that
Jesus Christ is Who is speaking; is not inspired but is supplied at the
interpretation of the particular translating team.
“The
Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave unto him, to shew unto his servants
things which must shortly come to pass; and he sent and signified it by his
angel unto his servant John:” (Rev. 1:1)
By
reading Revelation 1:1, we are told that God gave the revelation to His Son,
that Jesus Christ signified these things (the revelation) by His (God’s)
angel/messenger, unto John. So, I
believe that many times in the book of Revelation, we have an angel quoting
either God, or God’s Son at various times.
I also would say that there are instances (though, fewer) in Revelation
that John actually hears the voice of Christ Jesus and that John also hears a
voice quoting God, that he attributes to God, Himself.
With respect to the first
instance of this title’s usage (above), it will be shown both contextually and
by corroboration of scripture, that in the first of these two instances; the
usage is by God, The Father. The second
usage is by and applied to Christ Jesus, Himself.
I have omitted from this
discussion the “saying, I am the Alpha and Omega, the first and the last” of
Revelation 1:11, as it is not found in the best manuscript evidence and is not
included in almost any of the English translations of the Bible, with the
exception of the King James Versions and its variants.
Before
going into the context of the two instances of the Alpha and Omega title, it is
important to understand that it is not clear what the title, exactly, signifies
and means. However, given that God has
no beginning (alpha) and no ending (omega); what is clear is that the meaning
must be figurative and not literal. Many
theologians have offered theories on what is meant by the title, but it is
difficult to say; conclusively. Let’s
look at verses 1 through 11, so that we can determine Who is speaking.
[Rotherham]“The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God
gave to him, to point out unto his servants the things which must needs come to
pass with speed,—and he shewed them by signs, sending through his messenger,
unto his servant John; 2 who bare witness as to the word of
God, and the witness of Jesus Christ,—whatsoever things he saw. 3 Happy!
he that readeth, and they who hear, the words of the prophecy, and keep the
things, therein, written; for, the season, is, near. 4
John, unto the Seven Assemblies which are in Asia, Favour to you, and peace,
from—Him who Is, and who Was, and who is Coming, and from—The Seven Spirits
which are before his throne, 5
and from—Jesus Christ,—The Faithful Witness, The Firstborn of the Dead, and The
Ruler of the Kings of the Earth. Unto him that loveth us, and loosed us out of
our sins with his blood,— 6
and he hath made us [to be] a kingdom—priests unto his God and Father, Unto
him, be the glory, and the dominion, unto the ages. Amen. 7 Lo! he cometh with the clouds, and
every eye shall see him, such also as pierced him; and all the tribes of the
land shall smite themselves for him. Yea! Amen. 8 I,
am, the A, and, the Z, saith the Lord,—the, God who Is, and who Was, and who is
Coming, The Almighty. 9 I, John, your brother, and partaker
with you in the tribulation and kingdom and endurance in Jesus, came to be in
the isle that is called Patmos, because of the word of God, and the witness of
Jesus. 10 I came to be, in Spirit, in the
Lord’s Day, and heard, behind me, a loud voice, as of a trumpet, 11 saying—What thou seest, write in a
scroll, and send unto the Seven Assemblies,—unto Ephesus, and unto Smyrna, and
unto Pergamum,—and unto Thyatira, and unto Sardis, and unto Philadelphia,—and
unto Laodicea.” (Rev. 1:1-11)
If you read
closely, the passage which I cited above, you gain the context and are able to
clearly identify the speaker as to the title, “Alpha and Omega”. Notice the greeting in verses 3-6. John greets the reader on behalf of “…Him who
Is, and who Was, and who is Coming…and from the Seven Spirits which are before his throne, and from Jesus Christ, The
Faithful Witness…” It should be obvious
that just as the Seven Spirits which are before his throne, is not referring to Jesus Christ, that neither is the title,
“Him who Is, and who Was, and who is
Coming”. God, the Father, the Seven
Spirits, and Jesus Christ are identified by John in the greeting. Also, in verse 6, following the titles
applied to Jesus Christ in the preceding verse, we note that we (us) have been
made to be, by Jesus Christ (he) priests unto his (Jesus’) God and Father. So, in verse 8, when the Alpha and Omega
title is spoken, it is spoken by “…the
Lord, the, God who Is, and who Was, and who is Coming, The Almighty.”
Further, out of
all of the 44 references in scripture to “The Almighty”, it is only applied to
God, the Father. Never, does Christ
Jesus apply this title to Himself, nor does any other in the Bible apply this
title to Christ Jesus. The often quoted
prophecy about the birth of the Messiah in Isaiah 9:6 uses the title, “mighty God”, but not “almighty” and certainly not “The Almighty”. And again, in the first article in this
series, I explain how broadly the title of “god” could be applied in the Hebrew
theology. It is used in scripture to
apply to God, The Almighty, angels, and men.
“And
he said unto me, It is done. I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the end. I
will give unto him that is athirst of the fountain of the water of life
freely.”(Rev. 21:6)
Leading
up to the “…I am Alpha and Omega…” of
21:6, we have the angel (“His angel”, of Revelation 1:1) speaking for God, the
Father, saying:
“And
I heard a great voice out of heaven saying, Behold, the tabernacle of God is
with men, and he will dwell with them, and they shall be his people, and God
himself shall be with them, and be their God. 4
And God shall wipe away all tears from their eyes; and there shall be no more
death, neither sorrow, nor crying, neither shall there be any more pain: for
the former things are passed away.”(Rev. 21:3-4)
We
obviously have either Christ Jesus or the angel speaking here, as the “great
voice out of heaven”. John is being
spoken to, and we note that the Speaker tells John various things about
“God”. First, in the scriptures, Jesus
Christ never refers to Himself as “God”.
When He uses the title/name, “God”, He is always speaking of The
Father. Then, we come to verses 5-6:
“And
he that sat upon the throne said, Behold, I make all things new. And he said
unto me, Write: for these words are true and faithful. 6
And he said unto me, It is done. I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the
end. I will give unto him that is athirst of the fountain of the water of life
freely.” (Rev. 21:5-6)
We
continue with the Speaker of verses 3-4 and we read about “…He That sat upon the throne…”, identifying Himself as “The Alpha and Omega”, (Whom was clearly
identified in Revelation 1:8 as being God, the Father). Further, in verse 7, we have:
“He
that overcometh shall inherit all things; and I will be his God, and he shall
be my son.”(Rev. 21:7)
Again,
we have the Speaker stating that the One seated on the throne identifies
Himself, as “God”. The One on the
throne, the One identifying Himself as “the
Alpha and Omega”, and as “God”, must be God, the Father.
“I
am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the end, the first and the last.”(Rev. 22:13)
Determining
whom is speaking throughout this last chapter, in general, and Who is
identified as “the Alpha and Omega”, in particular is more difficult in this
passage, due to the back and forth of different persons speaking. Let’s look throughout the chapter:
[Rotherham]“And he pointed out to me a river of water
of life, bright as crystal, issuing forth out of the throne of God and of the
Lamb, 2 in the midst of the broadway
thereof. And, on this side of the river and on that, was a tree of life,
bearing twelve crops of fruit, every several month, yielding its fruit; and,
the leaves of the tree, were for the healing of the nations, 3 And, no curse, shall there be, any
more; and, the throne of God and of the Lamb, shall be, therein,—and his
servants will render divine service unto him, 4 and they shall see his face, and,
his name, [shall be] upon their foreheads. 5 And, night, shall be, no more; and
they have no need of the light of a lamp or the light of a sun, because, the
Lord, God, will give them light,—and they shall reign unto the ages of ages. (Rev.22:1-5)
Above, in verses 1-5, we have the angel (one of the
seven angels with the seven vials of Rev. 21:9) showing John the “river”, “proceeding out of the throne of God and of the Lamb”, the tree of
life, that the curse is removed, that there will be no night or need of light
of the sun.
“And
he said unto me—-These words, are faithful and true; and, the Lord, the God of
the spirits of the prophets, hath sent his messenger, to point out, unto his
servants, the things which must needs come to pass with speed. 7 And—Lo! I come speedily! Happy, is
he that keepeth the words of the prophecy of this scroll. 8 And, I, John, am he that was hearing
and seeing these things; and, when I had heard and seen, I fell down to do
homage at the feet of the messenger who had been pointing out unto me these
things,— 9 and he saith unto me—See [thou do
it] not! A fellow-servant, am I, of thee, and of thy brethren the prophets, and
of them who keep the words of this scroll: unto God, do homage.” (Rev. 22:6-9)
Imagine
that you are John and that you are being shown these visions. Of course, he later wrote the things he was
shown and told, but in the moment, he was seeing these things and was likely
overwhelmed, confused, and in awe of what he was seeing. All of a sudden (in verse 6, he hears a
voice, that in writing he attributes to the angel of God). But, at the moment it seems, because of what
we just read in verses 8 and 9, that John may well have thought that God or
Christ Jesus was speaking to him, because he falls down and is about to
worship. The angel says that he should
not, because he is a fellow servant and tells him, “worship God”.
“And
he saith unto me—Do not seal up the words of the prophecy of this scroll, for,
the season, is, near: 11 He that is doing unjustly, let him
do unjustly, still, and, he that is filthy, let him be made filthy, still; and,
he that is righteous, let him do righteousness, still, and, he that is holy,
let him be hallowed, still:— “(Rev. 22:10-11)
In
this above passage, the angel continues to speak.
“Lo!
I come speedily, and my reward is with me, to render unto each one as, his,
work is. 13 I, am the A and the Z, the First and
the Last, the Beginning and the End. 14 Happy, they who are washing their
robes, that their right may be unto the tree of life and, by the gates, they
may enter into the city. 15 Outside, are the dogs, and the
sorcerers, and the unchaste, and the murderers, and the idolaters, and every
one loving and doing falsehood. 16 I, Jesus, have sent my messenger, to
bear witness unto you of these things, for the assemblies. I, am the Root and
the Offspring of David, the bright and the morning Star. 17 And, the Spirit and the Bride,
say—Come! and, he that heareth, let him say—Come! and, he that is athirst, let
him come,—he that will, let him take of the water of life, freely. 18 I, bear witness, unto every one that
heareth the words of the prophecy of this scroll:—If anyone shall lay aught
upon them, God, will lay upon him, the plagues which are written in this
scroll; 19 And, if anyone shall take away from
the words of this prophetic scroll, God, will take away his part,—from the tree
of life, and out of the holy city,—[from] the things written in this scroll.” (Rev.
22:12-19)
In the above
passage, I believe (and many will disagree with me) we have the angel still
speaking, but now quoting Jesus Christ, Who
is speaking about himself, and about His God and Father. This is consistent with what we have read
thus far concerning these passages in Revelation. Remember that we read in chapter 1, verse 1
that God gave this revelation to His Son, and that He (Jesus Christ) signified
by His (God’s) angel, unto John.
In
verse 12, the angel is quoting Christ Jesus, who will be “coming quickly” and that “…My reward is with Me…”. In verse 13, we
read that the title, “the Alpha and
Omega”, is one last time declared. I
believe that here, Christ Jesus is announcing the Father by the title of “Alpha
and Omega”, because immediately following in verse 14, still quoting Jesus
Christ, the angel says, “…blessed are
they that do His (not “My”) commandments…”.
In verses 15 and
16, what is outside the New Jerusalem is described and read again closely, the
wording in verse 16:
“I,
Jesus have sent Mine angel to testify
unto you these things…”.
Jesus Christ has many
titles, like His God and Father, and references those titles, through
messenger, “…I am the root and the
Offspring of David, and the brigh and morning Star”.
Jesus Christ is still
being quoted in verses 17 through 19.
And just like we have seen earlier, even if it is Jesus Christ, Himself,
speaking and not the angel speaking as His messenger, we have the Speaker
saying, “…God shall…” in verses 18 and 19.
Jesus Christ, when speaking of “God”, never refers to Himself, but of
His God and Father.
Finally, closing out this
chapter with verses 20 and 21, we have the author, John, praying for the soon
return of Jesus Christ.
I will say that I am not
dogmatic on my interpretation of who is speaking in these final two occurrences
of the title, “Alpha and Omega”. It can
certainly be argued (persuasively) that Christ Jesus is speaking of Himself
with this title, and I have held that position, myself. Having said that, even applying that title to
Himself, does not mean that He is “Alpha and Omega” in the same way that God,
the Father is “Alpha and Omega”. As I
stated earlier, the title must be figurative; not literal. As both Paul and John speak of Christ Jesus
as the Firstborn of creation and Firstborn from among the dead, and the “second
Adam”; heading up all in the New Creation; Christ Jesus can rightly be
considered and called, The Beginning and The End (Alpha and Omega) of the New
Creation; itself.
[Rotherham]“Thomas answered, and said unto him—My Lord,
and my God! (John 20:28)
Thomas’
famous declaration. This is perhaps the
favorite proof text of Trinitarians and Modalists, alike to put forth as
evidence that Jesus Christ is “very God of very God”. Of course, as we learned in article 1 of this
series, I have no problem applying the title, “God”/”god” to our Lord, Christ
Jesus. For one thing, the title is very
elastic (as used by the Hebrews) and secondly, Christ Jesus is the Image of
God. He so represents God, the Father to
us (making Him known to us) that we can rightly refer to Him as “God”; while
acknowledging that Jesus Christ has a God and Father. The foregoing is actually instrumental in
correctly and scripturally understanding Thomas’ declaration.
We also have learned in
this series that God gave Jesus Christ His power and gave Him all authority in
both Heaven and Earth. This giving of
authority by God, to Jesus Christ is foreshadowed in the story of Joseph in
Genesis. Pharaoh made Joseph second,
only to him in all of Egypt (Gen. 41:40), saying, “Thou shalt be over my house, and according unto thy word shall all my
people be ruled: only in the throne will I be greater than you.”
After Christ’s
resurrection, the disciples who had seen the risen Lord, told others. Thomas wanted to know for himself and stated,
“…except I shall see in his hands the
print of the nails, and put my finger into the print of the nails, and thrust
my hand into his side, I will not believe.”
Eight days later, when
the Lord appeared to the disciples, including, Thomas; He said to Thomas, “…reach hither thy finger, and behold my
hands; and reach hither thy hand, and thrust it into my side; and be not
faithless, but believing.”
“And
Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord and my God.” Wasn’t
Thomas declaring that Jesus Christ was Lord and God, Almighty? I don’t believe so. Thomas and the other disciples were well
acquainted not only with the Old Testament scriptures concerning the Messiah
and the nature of God; but they also had lived with and was taught by Jesus
Christ, Himself for 3 ½ years. They knew
that He had never once declared Himself to be God, and always referred to His Father
as the “only true God” (John
17:3). What was Thomas declaring
then? How can we know what Thomas meant
in his statement? Most difficult
questions regarding a passage of scripture can be answered if we allow
scripture to interpret scripture and if we are careful with respect to the
previous things we have learned.
Consider this exchange
(which would have taken place only a matter of days before the event we are
considering) between the Lord, Thomas, and Philip:
[Rotherham]“
Thomas saith unto
him—Lord! we know not whither thou goest: How know we, the way? 6
Jesus saith unto him—I, am the way, and the truth, and the life: No one, cometh
unto the Father, but through me. 7
If ye had been getting to know me, my Father also, had ye known: from
henceforth, are ye getting to know him, and have seen him. 8
Philip saith unto him—Lord! show us the Father, and it sufficeth us. 9
Jesus saith unto him—So long a time as this, have I been, with you,—and thou
hast not come to know me, Philip? He that hath seen me, hath seen the Father.
How art, thou, saying, Show us the Father? 10 Believest thou not, that, I, am in
the Father, and, the Father, is, in me? The things which I am saying unto you,
from myself, I speak not; but, the Father, within me abiding, doeth his works. 11 Believe me, That, I, am in the
Father, and, the Father, in me;—or else, on account of the works themselves,
believe ye.” (John 14:5-11)
Thomas and Philip were
questioning the Lord about where He would be going (He was in anticipation of
going to the cross, His resurrection, and ascension to His Father). When it came to the Father (God), Philip asks
the Lord to “show us the Father”. Christ
Jesus incredulously asks Philip, how that he could have been with Him this long
and not have seen the Father. Showing
people the Father was what Jesus’ entire ministry was about. He even declared that His (Jesus) words were
not His own, but the Father’s. He said
that His works were the Father working through Him (Jesus). And, He told Philip and Thomas that He
(Jesus) was in the Father and the Father was in Him. He was the Image of in the invisible God and
the Word of God; as His authorized Representative to make God known to the
world. The key to understanding Thomas’
declaration of “my Lord and my God”, was that in seeing the resurrected Lord,
knowing that in Christ Jesus are all the prophecies fulfilled, and that Jesus
was indeed the Promised Messiah (Christ), Thomas could finally see what Jesus
Christ pointed out only days before; “Believe
me that I am in the Father and the Father is in Me…”.
Thomas’
realization is the same realization that we should have. It is what the entire testimony of the scriptures
declares. This article has not addressed
all of the proof texts for the Trinity Doctrine, but I sought to address the
most difficult to refute and to explain them in a scripturally sound
manner. I pray that is what I have done,
but continue to be open to correction and continued learning.
[1]
Biblehub.com/John Calvin’s Commentaries
[2]
Bullinger, Ethelbert William. “Commentary on 1 Timothy 2:13”. “E.W. Bullinger’s
Companion Bible Notes”.
https://www.studylight.org/commentaries/bul1-timothy-3.html.1909-1922.
